What Is a “Just” Man? (Matt 1:19) – Mondays with Mounce 281

Bill Mounce on May 8th, 2017. Tagged under ,,.

Bill Mounce

Bill is the founder and President of BiblicalTraining.org, serves on the Committee for Bible Translation (which is responsible for the NIV translation of the Bible), and has written the best-selling biblical Greek textbook, Basics of Biblical Greek, and many other Greek resources. He blogs regularly on Greek and issues of spiritual growth. Learn more about Bill's Greek resources at BillMounce.com.

I came across another example of how word-for-word translations aren’t always translations, assuming that a translation is meant to convey meaning.

Joseph was a δίκαιος man, and as such wanted to divorce Mary quietly. But think about it; depending on your understanding of “just,” this may not make any sense. Would a person characterized as “just” ignore what appeared to be the fact that Mary had been sexually active during their engagement? (Again, we know she wasn’t, but for all appearances, she was.) A man of “grace” might not want to shame her, but a “just” man? Wouldn’t a “just” man have her stoned, which is the penalty under Jewish law?

The ESV writes, “and her husband Joseph, being a just man and unwilling to put her to shame, resolved to divorce her quietly.” My point stands; how is leniency on Joseph’s part “just”? How does “justice” lead him to not want to shame her? The ESV is translating words, but at the risk of losing sense.

Other translations say he was a “righteous man” (NASB, HCSB, NRSV, NET). The NET says he was a “good man.” They also translate καὶ as “and” and ὤν as a straight participle, and this does make sense. Joseph was a really good person, and one way that goodness (i.e., righteousness) showed itself was in a desire not to shame her.

The NIV has two differences. “Because Joseph her husband was faithful to the law, and yet (ὢν καί) did not want to expose her to public disgrace, he had in mind to divorce her quietly.” Did you see both? They translated δίκαιος as “faithful to the law,” and translated ὤν καὶ as a concessive, “and yet.” This makes sense. Even though Joseph lived in accordance with the Jewish understanding of the law, nevertheless, he did not want to shame Mary, or worse. (The NIV does include the footnote, “Or was a righteous man.”)

Be very careful of thinking that translating only words is actually translation, especially when you are left with a contradiction, or at best, confusion.


William D. [Bill] Mounce posts about the Greek language and exegesis on the ZA Blog. He is the president of BiblicalTraining.org, a ministry that creates and distributes world-class educational courses at no cost. He is also the author of numerous works including the bestselling Basics of Biblical Greek and a corresponding online class. He served as the New Testament chair of the English Standard Version Bible translation, and is currently on the Committee for Bible Translation for the NIV.

Learn more about Bill’s Greek resources at BillMounce.com.

  • M. Edgecombe 9 months ago

    Hi Bill, I agree with your larger point, and your exegesis overall, but I also think that the ESV translation helps us to understand that justice is not always what we think. Matthew’s designation of Joseph as a just man includes his depiction of Joseph as a merciful man. Like his father David, Joseph had a righteousness that was informed by faith, hope, and love, as ours should be. Anyway, appreciating your insightful blogs.

  • Lee Johnson 9 months ago

    Now add Luke 14:26 and figure it out. As it reads it is contrary with the Old Testament, etc.